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Question 1

Marks: 1

OP0001
If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass

(which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is

fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession,

the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:

Choose one answer.

a. Spherical Flight Segment Incorrect

b. Curve of some type of other Incorrect

c. Rhumb Line Incorrect

d. Great Circle Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 2

Marks: 1

OP0009
If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:

Choose one answer.

a. 20%. Incorrect

b. 15%. Correct

c. 10%. Incorrect

d. 5%. Incorrect

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 3

Marks: 1

OP0011
The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the ground is :

Choose one answer.

a. carbon dioxide. Incorrect

b. freon. Incorrect

c. sand. Correct

d. water. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 4

Marks: 1

OP0012
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of :

Choose one answer.

a. seat rows in the cabin. Incorrect

b. passengers in the cabin. Incorrect

c. emergency exits in the cabin. Incorrect

d. seats in the cabin. Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 5

Marks: 1

OP0013
The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes

Choose one answer.

a. must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board. Incorrect

b. depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator. Incorrect

c. must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2 minutes. Incorrect

d. must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50 % of the available emergency exits. Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 6

Marks: 1

OP0019
MNPS is the abbreviation for:

Choose one answer.

a. Military Network Performance Structure. Incorrect

b. Maximum North-atlantic Precision System. Incorrect

c. Minimum Navigation Positioning System. Incorrect

d. Minimum Navigation Performance Specification. Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 7

Marks: 1

OP0020
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:

Choose one answer.

a. Mach number. Correct

b. ground speed. Incorrect

c. true airspeed. Incorrect

d. indicated airspeed. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 8

Marks: 1

OP0039
For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:

Choose one answer.

a. Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS). Incorrect

NOTE - "notified specified special routes"

b. One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS). Correct

NOTE - "notified specified special routes"

c. Two independant Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS). Incorrect

NOTE - "notified specified special routes"

d. Three Inertial Navigation System (INS). Incorrect

NOTE - "notified specified special routes"

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 9

Marks: 1

OP0042
For a twin-engined aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within :

Choose one answer.

a. one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative. Correct

b. one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating. Incorrect

c. two hours of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating. Incorrect

d. two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative. Incorrect

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 10

Marks: 1

OP0044
When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is :

Choose one answer.

a. All flight crew shall remain at their station. Incorrect

b. Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking. Incorrect

c. The ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear. Correct

d. The aircraft's stairs be completely extended. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 11

Marks: 1

OP0049
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to :

Choose one answer.

a. Determine which system is causing the smoke. Incorrect

b. Put on the mask and goggles. Correct

c. Cut off all air conditioning units. Incorrect

d. Begin an emergency descent. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 12

Marks: 1

OP0051
Who is responsible for assuming that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?

Choose one answer.

a. The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods. Correct

b. The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items. Incorrect

c. It is not specified. Incorrect

d. The operator. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 13

Marks: 1

OP0060
An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the following characteristics:

Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the certificate of airworthiness = 230

 Number of seats on board = 200

Scheduled number of passengers on board = 180

The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft cabin should be:

Choose one answer.

a. 200. Incorrect

b. 220. Correct

c. 180. Incorrect

d. 230. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 14

Marks: 1

OP0063
A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it further than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt.

Choose one answer.

a. Life rafts must be available for all occupants. Incorrect

The regulations require life rafts when the flight is over 400nm or 120 minutes at all engines cruise speed. Therefore, only life jackets are required 

b. Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants. Incorrect

The regulations require life rafts when the flight is over 400nm or 120 minutes at all engines cruise speed. Therefore, only life jackets are required 

c. The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular case. Incorrect

The regulations require life rafts when the flight is over 400nm or 120 minutes at all engines cruise speed. Therefore, only life jackets are required 

d. Life jackets must be available for all occupants. Correct

The regulations require life rafts when the flight is over 400nm or 120 minutes at all engines cruise speed. Therefore, only life jackets are required 

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 15

Marks: 1

OP0072
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :

Choose one answer.

a. Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration Correct

b. Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration Incorrect

c. Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration Incorrect

d. Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 16

Marks: 1

OP0073
To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver :

Choose one answer.

a. Above and upwind from the larger aircraft Correct

b. Above and downwind from the larger aircraft Incorrect

c. Below and upwind from the larger aircraft Incorrect

d. Below and downwind from the larger aircraft Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 17

Marks: 1

OP0079
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

Choose one answer.

a. 285 and 420. Correct

b. 280 and 400. Incorrect

c. 275 and 400. Incorrect

d. 280 and 390. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 18

Marks: 1

OP0080
In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is :

Choose one answer.

a. 128.800 MHz. Incorrect

b. 121.800 MHz. Incorrect

c. 118.800 MHz. Incorrect

d. 123.45 MHz. Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 19

Marks: 1

OP0086
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :

1. flies above the glide path

2. flies below the glide path

3. has an increasing true airspeed

4. has a decreasing true airspeed

The combination of correct statements is :

Choose one answer.

a. 2,3 Incorrect

Loss of headwind = loss of lift (sinking) and a loss of IAS

b. 2,4 Correct

Loss of headwind = loss of lift (sinking) and a loss of IAS

c. 1,3 Incorrect

Loss of headwind = loss of lift (sinking) and a loss of IAS

d. 1,4 Incorrect

Loss of headwind = loss of lift (sinking) and a loss of IAS

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 20

Marks: 1

OP0092
During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Spécification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC ; you will normally be :

Choose one answer.

a. in a polar track system Incorrect

b. in a night-time organised track system Incorrect

c. in a day-time organised track system Correct

d. outside the validity period of the organised track system Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 21

Marks: 1

OP0115
A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aeroplane flying away from the shore by more than :

Choose one answer.

a. 200 NM Incorrect

b. 100 NM Incorrect

c. 400 NM Incorrect

d. 50 NM Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 22

Marks: 1

OP0120
Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in MNPS airspace?

Choose one answer.

a. 60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical. Incorrect

b. 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical. Incorrect

c. 60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical. Correct

d. 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 23

Marks: 1

OP0125
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by :

Choose one answer.

a. inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message. Incorrect

b. using the abbreviation "OTS" followed by the code letter assigned to the track. Incorrect

c. inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude. Incorrect

d. the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned to the track. Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 24

Marks: 1

OP0126
In the event of a contingency which requires an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should :

Choose one answer.

a. If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome. Incorrect

b. If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome. Incorrect

c. If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome. Incorrect

d. If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome. Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 25

Marks: 1

OP0139
The climb or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft :

Choose one answer.

a. can be authorised only if the pilot is in communication with tconflicting aircraft pilot Incorrect

b. can be authorised when the aircraft has two long range navigation systems Incorrect

c. is forbidden in all cicumstances Incorrect

d. can be authorised under radar control if the pilot is in VHF contact with the controller Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 26

Marks: 1

OP0145
Posit : g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The transport precession is equal to :

Choose one answer.

a. g.sin Lm Correct

b. g/2.sin Lm Incorrect

c. 15°/h.sin Lm Incorrect

d. g.(sin Lm-sin Lo) Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 27

Marks: 1

OP0147
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:

Choose one answer.

a. true North Correct

b. grid North Incorrect

c. compass North Incorrect

d. magnetic North Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 28

Marks: 1

OP0153
A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

Choose one answer.

a. 2400 m Incorrect

b. 1500 m Incorrect

c. 1600 m Incorrect

d. 3600 m Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 29

Marks: 1

OP0159
According to the JAR-OPS requirements, an IFR flight with no alternate aerodrome can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions (VMC) are effective for at least :

Choose one answer.

a. 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival Correct

b. 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival Incorrect

c. 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival Incorrect

d. 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 30

Marks: 1

OP0160
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted.

This MMEL is drawn up by :

Choose one answer.

a. the operator and is specified in the operation manual Incorrect

b. the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer Incorrect

c. the operator and approved by the certification authority Incorrect

d. the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 31

Marks: 1

OP0164
The information concerning dangerous goods that passengers may carry, are listed in the :

Choose one answer.

a. ICAO document titled "Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous products" Correct

b. JAR-OPS documentation. Incorrect

c. aircraft's flight manual. Incorrect

d. IATA document "Dangerous products transportation". Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 32

Marks: 1

OP0171
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever possible :

Choose one answer.

a. distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path. Incorrect

b. distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path. Correct

c. identical to the one of the preceding airplane. Incorrect

d. distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 33

Marks: 1

OP0182
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?

Choose one answer.

a. 3.7 km (2 NM) Incorrect

b. 7.4 km (4 NM) Correct

c. 11.1 km (6 NM) Incorrect

d. 9.3 km (5 NM) Incorrect

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 34

Marks: 1

OP0183
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?

Choose one answer.

a. 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes Incorrect

b. 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes Incorrect

c. 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes Incorrect

d. 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes Correct

Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/1.

Question 35

Marks: 1

OP0194
In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods :

Choose one answer.

a. Spanish Incorrect

b. English Correct

c. English, French or Spanish Incorrect

d. French Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 36

Marks: 1

OP0195
From the following list :

 1. Fire extinguishers

2. Portable oxygen supplies

3. First-aid kits

4. Passenger meals

5. Alcoholic beverages

Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons :

Choose one answer.

a. 2,3 and 4 only Incorrect

b. 3,4 and 5 only Incorrect

c. 1,2 and 5 only Incorrect

d. 1,2 and 3 only Correct

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 37

Marks: 1

OP0196
The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :

Choose one answer.

a. 3 hours Incorrect

b. 24 hours Correct

c. 6 hours Incorrect

d. 12 hours Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 38

Marks: 1

OP0197
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 195psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is :

Choose one answer.

a. 126 kt Correct

9 x square root of 195 = 125.678

b. 129 kt Incorrect

9 x square root of 195 = 125.678

c. 80 kt Incorrect

9 x square root of 195 = 125.678

d. 114 kt Incorrect

9 x square root of 195 = 125.678

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 39

Marks: 1

OP0206
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

Choose one answer.

a. value of the stall angle of attack Incorrect

b. tuck under Incorrect

c. stalling speed Correct

d. roll rate Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 40

Marks: 1

OP0219
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:

Choose one answer.

a. a slow depressurization. Incorrect

b. a plastic fire. Incorrect

c. a fast depressurization. Correct

d. an electrical fire. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 41

Marks: 1

OP0244
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:

1 - an increase in the take-off distance

2 - a diminution of the take-off run

3 - an increase in the stalling speed

4 - a diminution of the stalling speed

5 - a diminution of the climb gradient

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

Choose one answer.

a. 2, 3, 5 Incorrect

b. 1, 3, 5 Correct

c. 1, 2, 3 Incorrect

d. 2, 4, 5 Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 42

Marks: 1

OP0247
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :

Choose one answer.

a. 400 ft and visibility 1500m Incorrect

b. 600 ft and visibility 2400m Incorrect

c. 500 ft and visibility 1600m Correct

d. MDH Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 43

Marks: 1

OP0279
In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off by:

1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft

2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft

3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft

4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Choose one answer.

a. 3, 4 Incorrect

b. 1, 2 Correct

c. 2, 3 Incorrect

d. 1, 4 Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 44

Marks: 1

OP0305
In accordance with EU/JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be equipped with a:

Choose one answer.

a. crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment. Incorrect

Over 200 seats -  required in the cabin

b. crash axe in the cockpit and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment. Incorrect

Over 200 seats -  required in the cabin

c. crow-bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger compartment. Incorrect

Over 200 seats -  required in the cabin

d. crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment. Correct

Over 200 seats -  required in the cabin

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 45

Marks: 1

OP0318
An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of :

Choose one answer.

a. 40 kt. Incorrect

b. 60 kt. Incorrect

c. 80 kt. Correct

d. 20 kt. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 46

Marks: 1

OP0324
Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds ?

Choose one answer.

a. short gang-mown grass Incorrect

b. long grass Correct

c. an area liable to flooding Incorrect

d. edible rubbish Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 47

Marks: 1

OP0351
The public address system must be audible and intelligible at:

1 - all passenger seats

2 - toilets

3 - cabin crew seats

4 - work stations

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Choose one answer.

a. 1-2 Incorrect

b. 1-2-3-4 Correct

c. 1-2-3 Incorrect

d. 1 Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 48

Marks: 1

OP0371
Supplemental oxygen is used to :

Choose one answer.

a. provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation Incorrect

b. assist a passenger with breathing disorders Incorrect

c. provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation Correct

d. protect a crew who fights a fire Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 49

Marks: 1

OP0376
The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is:

Choose one answer.

a. 150 m if a threshold RVR is available. Incorrect

b. 200 m. Incorrect

c. 150 m. Correct

d. 300 m. Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 50

Marks: 1

OP0379
During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

Choose one answer.

a. the FAF. Incorrect

b. the outer marker (OM). Correct

c. the middle marker. Incorrect

d. the start final descent point (glide slope intersection). Incorrect

Correct

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Entradas relacionadas:

Tags:
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